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Exam : 3COM 3M0-212
Title : 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Pre-Sales Expert version 3.2

1. Which two features are supported by all Switch 5500 models? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic and static routing
B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
C. IEEE 802.1X Network Login
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
Answer: AC

2. Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Answer: BCD

3. How should you prioritize traffic on a network, if both voice and video are present on the network?
A. Video and voice traffic should have equal priority
B. Video traffic should have higher priority than voice traffic
C. Voice traffic should have higher priority than video traffic
Answer: C

4. Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
Answer: CD

5. The Switch 5500G-EI supports a field-upgradeable, Power over Ethernet (PoE) power supply unit.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

6. Which two current Switch 8800 features address Maluti University (MU) network requirements? (Choose two.)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availability solution
B. ATM support over OC3 provides greater data throughput on the campus backbone
C. Cut through switching consistently provides lower latency for voice traffic on the LAN
D. Multiple priority features ensure key applications will receive the best network response (e.g., eight priority queues per port, Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support)
Answer: AD
7. Which two features are supported by all Switch 5500 models? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic and static routing
B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
C. IEEE 802.1X Network Login
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
Answer: AC
8. Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Answer: B

7. Which two features are supported by all Switch 5500 models? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.1X Network Login
B. Eight egress queues per port
C. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
Answer: AB

8. If you chose the Switch 5500 family for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution centers to the campus data center in Building 9?
A. Use the Switch 5500-EI PWR 28-port model (3CR17171-91) and connect the data center to the SFP slots
B. Use the Switch 5500-EI 28 port FX model (3CR17181-91) and connect the data center to the 100BASE-X SFP transceivers
C. Use the Switch 5500-EI 28 port model (3CR17161-91) and connect the data center to the SFP slots with 1000BASE-SX SFP transceivers
D. Use the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) and connect the data center to the 2-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceivers
Answer: D

9. Which two features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. ATM over fiber links
B. IEEE 802.3ae 10 gigabit Ethernet
C. IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Store and forward and cut-through switching
Answer: BC

10. Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Border Gateway Protocol
C. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
D. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used
Answer: CD

11. Which two hardware features are supported on the Switch 5500-EI and Switch 5500-SI switch models? (Choose two.)
A. 24 or 48 10/100 Mbps ports
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. 2 Gbps, full-duplex XRN stacking link
D. Mix and match either switch in a single stack
Answer: AC

12. Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500-SI
B. Switch 5500-EI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Answer: C

13. If you chose the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution center to the wiring closets on the upper floors?
A. Use the 10/100/1000BASE-T switch ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
B. Use 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers on the SFP gigabit ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
C. Use the 1-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceiver to connect the switch to the wiring closets
D. Use 3Com’s eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Distributed Fabric technology to connect the switch to the wiring closets
Answer: B

14. Which two software features are supported by all Switch 5500 models? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF
B. PIM Sparse Mode
C. QoS prioritization and classification
D. RADIUS Authenticated Device Access (RADA)
Answer: CD

15. Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which two current Switch 8800 features address Maluti University (MU) network requirements? (Choose two.)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availability solution
B. ATM support over OC3 provides greater data throughput on the campus backbone
C. Cut through switching consistently provides lower latency for voice traffic on the LAN
D. Multiple priority features ensure key applications will receive the best network response (e.g., eight priority queues per port, Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support)
Answer: AD

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Exam : 3M0-300
Title : 3Com Certified Security Specialist Final Exam

1. 41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Answer: B
2. Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Answer: A

2. Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Answer: B

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-701
Title : 3Com Certified IP Telephony NBX Expert Final Exam

1. What is the purpose of a Digital Signal Processor? (Choose one)
A. Prevents a caller from hearing their own voice
B. Generates tones recognizable to Local Exchange Carriers
C. Converts analog sound into digital data
D. Regulates carrier line voltage
Answer: C

2. Which NBX phone has 4 fixed feature buttons, large message waiting indicator, no LCD and supports 802.3af Power over Ethernet? (Choose one)
A. 3106
B. 3103
C. 3102
D. 3101
E. 3100
Answer: E

3. Which of the following is true of the V3000 NCP? (Choose three)
A. Supports up to 200 total devices
B. Supports up to 1500 total devices
C. Supports up to 12 Voice Mail Ports
D. Supports up to 72 Voice Mail Ports
E. Supports up to 8 Virtual Tie Lines
F. Supports up to 48 Virtual Tie Lines
Answer: BDF

4. Which of the following are recommended tools for troubleshooting and repairing Analog Lines? (Choose four)
A. Butt-set
B. Loop Current Tester
C. 599 Punch-Down Tool/Blades
D. Flux capacitor
E. Cable Splicer’s Knife
F. Tone Generator
Answer: ABEF

5. Layer 3 operation is required for environments with multiple LANs where the NBX and phones may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs or across WANs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

6. What is the name of the 3Com soft-phone application that enables a user computer to have the same features and functions as a NBXWhat is the name of the 3Com soft-phone application that enables a user? computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX Telephone? (Choose one)
A. NetSet
B. NetView
C. Compliment Attendant Software
D. pcXset
E. pcSoftSet
Answer: D

7. The Network Call Processor (NCP) is responsible for setting up communication between endpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

8. Which of the following statements best characterizes NBX Silence Suppression? (Choose three)
A. Enabling reduces network traffic
B. When enabled, a device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a ilence indicator, rather than a full packet of igitized silence
C. Receiving devices generate white noise for the time periods represented by silence indicator packets
D. Can only be enabled or disabled for the entire system.
E. Can only be used with NBX 3102 phones.
Answer: ABC

9. Changes to Host Name, IP Address, Default Gateway and Subnet Mask require a reboot.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

10. Convergence brings added value to the customer by reducing cabling and skills costs
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

11. Which of the following are not subject to Class of Service settings? (Choose two)
A. Emergency 911 Calls
B. Alternate Carrier
C. Long Distance Calls
D. WAN Calls
E. International
F. System Wide Speed Dials
Answer: AF

12. Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? (Choose two)
A. NBX 100
B. V3000
C. V3000 BRI-ST
D. V3001R
E. V5000
Answer: BC

13. In North America ISDN-PRI uses four wire pairs to provide 23 channels and one 64 Kbps D channel. This is referred to as 3B+D?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

14. The NBX Communication System provides E911 (emergency) capabilities when the Digital Line Card is configured for T1 signaling.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

15. Which of the following modes of operation are supported by the NBX? (Choose three)
A. PBX Mode
B. Key Mode
C. Hybrid Mode
D. Simulated Mode
E. Traditional Mode
Answer: ABC

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-211
Title : Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist

1. Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

2. Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
Answer: CD

3. The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

4. The Switch 5500 RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) is designed to authenticate users based on MAC address without the requirement for IEEE 802.1X client on the attached devices.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

5. The Switch 5500 allows VLANs to be automatically assigned based on user credentials or on the MAC address of the device.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

6. Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Answer: BCD

7. The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

8. Which Layer 3 protocol is supported on the Switch 5500-SI?
A. RIP 2
B. OSPF
C. VRRP
D. PIM Dense Mode
Answer: A

9. Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500-SI
B. Switch 5500-EI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Answer: C

10. What is a purpose of the Switch 5500 automatic VLAN and QoS assignment?
A. Preconfigures the port with the VLAN and QoS configurations
B. Always applies the administrative configuration to the port at login
C. VLAN and QoS profile are supplied by the RADIUS server when a user logs on
D. Dynamically creates a new VLAN using RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) specifications
Answer: C

11. What is the security benefit obtained when the Switch 5500 is integrated with Tipping Point IPS?
A. Prevents unauthorized users from logging onto the network
B. Illegal activity or infected machine can be automatically isolated or blocked
C. Automatically works with IEEE 802.1X Network Login and switch ACLs to determine user authorization and access authority
Answer: B

12. Which two are Layer 2 features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
B. User definable MAC table aging period
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
D. GARP Multicast Registration Protocol (GMRP)
Answer: AB

13. Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Configurable queue processing
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Eight hardware queues per switch
D. Queue priority is based only on First In First Out (FIFO) algorithm
Answer: AB

14. Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
D. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used
Answer: CD

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-250
Title : 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Post-Sales Expert version

1. Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server
Answer: B

2. How must the MAC Radius Authenticated Device Access (RADA) address be configured on the Switch 5500?
A.Hexadecimal IP address only
B.Hexadecimal MAC address only
C.Binary or hexadecimal IP or MAC address
D.Binary, decimal or hexadecimal MAC address
Answer: B

3. 102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A.Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B.Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C.Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address 129.102.149.23
D.Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
Answer: C
7. Which three are Switch 5500 configuration requirements when creating an eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric? (Choose three.)
A.All units in the stack must have the same sysname
B.All units in the stack must be running the same software version
C.A mixture of switch models can be used to create a single XRN Fabric
D.Switch 5500-SI/EI up/down ports must be enabled for fabric mode
E.A switch must be initialized after it has been added to an existing XRN Fabric
Answer: ABD
8. What is the reason to connect the up port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A.Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B.Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C.Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D.Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A
9. How does the network administrator configure the up/down Switch 5500-EI/SI ports to operate in fabric mode?
A.By default, the up/down ports are enabled for fabric mode
B.Execute the command xrn-fabric authentication-mode simple
C.Execute the command resilient-arp enable x/x/x where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
D.Execute the command fabric-port gigabit x/x/x enable where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
Answer: D

4. Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating an LA group? (Choose two.)
A.A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B.Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C.A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D.LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches
Answer: AB

5. Which two are functions of Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)? (Choose two.)
A.Provides a framework and transport for the exchange of authentication information between the authenticator and the supplicant
B.Provides encapsulation for the exchange of information between the authenticator and authentication server
C.Provides the mechanism for locking/unlocking a switch port based on the results of the supplicants authentication
D.Provides the mechanism for defining what network resources a user may access based on the authentication information
Answer: AB

6. 0
1. You have issued the switch debugging command debugging rip packets from the management terminal, but you are not receiving any debug output. What is the reason you are not getting any debug output from the switch?
A.RIP has not been enabled, and therefore there is no debug output
B.Output from the debugging command only goes to the syslog server
C.You forgot to issue the enable debugging command at the System View
D.You forgot to issue the terminal debugging command, directing the output to your management terminal
Answer: D

7. Which security standard is defined by IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.Encryption standard for network authorization
B.Port-based Network Access Control protocol standard
C.Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) standard for network authorization
D.Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) standard for network access
Answer: B

8. GARP VLAN Registration Protocol (GVRP) maintains and distributes Virtual LAN (VLAN) registration information only about the dynamically created VLANs using GARP.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

9. What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command snmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domain 129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A.Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B.Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C.Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address 129.102.149.23
D.Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
Answer: C

10. Which three are Switch 5500 configuration requirements when creating an eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric? (Choose three.)
A.All units in the stack must have the same sysname
B.All units in the stack must be running the same software version
C.A mixture of switch models can be used to create a single XRN Fabric
D.Switch 5500-SI/EI up/down ports must be enabled for fabric mode
E.A switch must be initialized after it has been added to an existing XRN Fabric
Answer: ABD

11. An IP address must be configured on a switch before it can be managed using Telnet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

12. What is the reason to connect the up port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A.Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B.Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C.Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D.Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A

13. Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A.Switch 5500-EI
B.Switch 5500-SI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Answer: B

14. You have configured multiple OSPF areas on your network. How do the different OSPF areas communicate with each other?
A.The Designated Router (DR) uses multicast routing to broadcast advertisements to the other area DRs
B.The Designated Router (DR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
C.The Area Border Router (ABR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
D.The Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
Answer: C

15. You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A.From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B.From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C.From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D.From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.
Answer: A

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-600
Title : 3Com Wireless Specialist Final Exam

1. What is the optimal access point (AP) channel allocation configuration on a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. APs should be configured with overlapping channels
B. APs should be configured with different non-overlapping channels
C. It makes no difference if APs use overlapping or non-overlapping channels
D. Allow APs to automatically perform the hunting process to determine the best channels
Answer: B

2. Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
B. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server
Answer: ACE

3. Which two are features of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) Infrastructure Basic Service Set? (Choose two.)
A. Also known as an Ad Hoc or Peer-to-Peer WLAN
B. Members communicate directly with each other within the service area
C. Created when two or more Basic Service Sets are connected together
D. Only stations exist in the service area and no access point (AP) is used
E. Management and control of the service area is performed by the access point (AP)
Answer: BE

4. Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as "open system" or "open system authentication," so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

5. What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules
Answer: D

6. Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Omnipole antenna
C. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
D. Patch panel or parabolic antenna
Answer: B

7. Which wireless building-to-building bridge distance-related parameter must be set to ensure each wireless bridge waits the appropriate period for a response from other wireless bridges?
A. Basic Rate Set
B. Broadcast Service Set Identifier (SSID)
C. Acknowledgement Delay Timeout (ACK)
D. Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS)
Answer: C

8. The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

9. Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
C. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
Answer: B

10. Which statement is true for Wireless LAN (WLAN) data and throughput rates?
A. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) increases
B. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) decreases
C. Actual data throughput on a WLAN is about 25% of the defined throughput rate
D. Data rates on an IEEE 802.11a/g WLAN are not affected by distance from the access point (AP)
Answer: A

11. What was a limitation of first-generation Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Were designed to be managed individually
B. Did not support roaming for mobile computers
C. Did not provide authentication or encryption services
D. Were not designed to support large number of users
Answer: A

12. Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the two features supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750. (Choose two.)
A. Fit access point
B. IEEE 802.1X Network Login and IPSec
C. Dual-mode radio allows operation for both IEEE 802.11b/g and IEEE 802.11a
D. Dual-mode radio allows operation for either IEEE 802.11b/g or IEEE 802.11a
Answer: AD

13. 11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules
Answer: D
2. Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

14. Which two are reasons a company may choose to use a building-to-building wireless bridge versus a T1/E1 or fiber link? (Choose two.)
A. Reliability of the connection
B. Time to deploy and set up the connection
C. The distances between the two buildings
D. The initial installation costs and/or recurring monthly charges
Answer: BD

15. Which three are features supported on the OfficeConnect ADSL Wireless 11g Firewall Router and the 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 11g Cable/DSL Router? (Choose three.)
A. VPN termination
B. Stateful packet inspection
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Four 10/100 Ethernet LAN ports
E. 256-bit Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encryption
F. 40/64-bit and 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption
Answer: DEF

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-700
Title : IP Telephony Expert Final Exam v2.5

1. 1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for access
Answer: CE
4. Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG
5. How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets
Answer: C
6. Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD
7. Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD
8. Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

2. Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG

3. Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD

4. Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Answer: AE

5. Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

6. A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C

7. Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first, then to the next extension, until the call is answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

8. Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

9. Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

10. Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of "user" and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for access
Answer: CE

11. Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD

12. How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets
Answer: C

13. Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD

14. What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new CoS
Answer: B

15. Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-331
Title : 3Com WAN Specialist Final Exam v2.0

1. Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?
A. [RTA] LCP Chap
B. [RTB] Chap enable
C. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
D. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
E. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp authentication-mode chap
Answer: C

2. Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Answer: ACE

3. Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Answer: BDF

4. What is the IPSEC security feature that can detect an illegal change to a packet’s content referred to as?
A. 3DES
B. Anti-replay
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
E. Data authentication
Answer: C

5. The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
Answer: C

6. Click the Exhibit button. In the configuration example, which command is needed to complete the GRE configuration?
A. [RTA] ike peer RTB
B. [RTB] ike peer RTA
C. [RTA] set mode ip_tunnel
D. [RTB] set mode ip_tunnel
E. [RTA-Tunnel0/0] destination 1.1.1.1
Answer: E

7. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Answer: D

8. Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site
Answer: ABEF

9. Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Answer: D

10. Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Answer: D

11. Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Answer: C

12. What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Answer: B

13. What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?
A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0
B. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255
D. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255
Answer: C

14. x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Answer: C
2. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Answer: B

15. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Answer: C